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Hard disagree; it’s not a useful comment precisely because it’s prescriptivism. It’s suggesting people are incorrect because they’re using a commonly accepted meaning of a word, that’s just not how language works.
Edit: Perhaps I should be clearer. The “less vs fewer” rule was invented roughly 200 years ago and doesn’t actually hold true, “less” has been used this way for far longer. It’s the epitome of “I want English to work this way, fuck everyone else”.
According to this list it was used figuratively by Jane Austen, who I believe died more than 200 years ago. That page also claims the earliest known use is 1769, so it’s probably less than 300 years in writing? It’s moot either way, if you’re going for an etymological argument you could go further and say literally should mean anything to do with letters or writing, from the original Latin literalis/litteralis “of or belonging to letters or writing”.